It’s true, but there are other factors such as this is an English literacy measurement. So somewhere like southern California which has a higher level of Spanish only speakers would test a lot lower than other places with a higher population of English only speakers.
I only looked at the abstract, and only for like 3 minutes, but it looks like this is the relevant line:
Four in five U.S. adults (79 percent) have English literacy skills sufficient to complete tasks that require comparing and contrasting information, paraphrasing, or making low-level inferences—literacy skills at level 2 or above in PIAAC (OECD 2013). In contrast, one in five U.S. adults (21 percent) has difficulty completing these tasks (figure 1).
So not that 1 in 5 adults can’t read, but 1 in 5 adults have difficulty completing basic tasks involving reading. OP’s choice of the term “illiterate” seems like a poor choice, but that also seems like a never ending pedantic argument that I’m not really looking to get invovled in.
what? this sounds wrong, there’s definitely something not right here
It’s true, but there are other factors such as this is an English literacy measurement. So somewhere like southern California which has a higher level of Spanish only speakers would test a lot lower than other places with a higher population of English only speakers.
I only looked at the abstract, and only for like 3 minutes, but it looks like this is the relevant line:
So not that 1 in 5 adults can’t read, but 1 in 5 adults have difficulty completing basic tasks involving reading. OP’s choice of the term “illiterate” seems like a poor choice, but that also seems like a never ending pedantic argument that I’m not really looking to get invovled in.
Lot of non-English speakers combined with very fuzzy ideas of illiterate. Usual America bad bullshit.